Piss onomonopoetically represents urinating. The French did not suddenly realize, in 1066, that piss sounded like urinating. It is one of the most ancient of words and Greek speakers have decided they created it.
I said the French introduced it to English. After 1066, because that's the date of the Norman Invasion, the transfer of thousands of French/Vulgar Latin/Latin words to English, and the beginning of Middle English. And while the Greeks may have robbed another culture of the word pison, it's not related to the Germanic or Vulgar Latin piss(iare).
Not only do I have homophonic coincidence but proof of (a) edible bean held in high regard translated as "Dove's Droppings" (b) Cicer = son of Dove (chick) (c) piss however you want to spell it is the root of pisen and pisen is plural of piss.
Uh, I don't think you can have
The only thing I could find on cicer was the famous roman Cicero, and that cicer means chickpea. I also know now that it's not related to the Latin word for dove, columba. I do not know what you are trying to say with (c).
English does not have same symbology. You know it and are throwing red herring.
What have you been trying to prove to us then?