Well he was the son of god, I never thought that the language barrier would have been much of an issue for him. Prophets very frequently spoke in tongues, or dead languages, and it would be kind of sad if God were monolingual.
Assuming that Jesus of Nazareth was an actual historical person and that the details of his life as recorded in the Gospels are more-or-less accurate is a far cry from assuming that he was the Son of God!
None of Yaziq's conjectures are inherent unreasonable, but not all are equally justified. Although it is reasonable to assume Pilate spoke Latin, there is no justification for the conjecture that he spoke to Jesus in it. Greek was a basic part of the Classical Roman educational system. Tutors were often Greek slaves, and any educated Roman had knowledge of the language. (Suetonius reports that Caesar's last words were claimed to be not "Et tu, Brute?" but rather "καὶ σύ, τέκνον;".) If this was true in the western half of the Empire of the time, how much more likely would it have been in the eastern
half, where Greek functioned as a lingua franca
Moreover, simply because no mention is made of interpreters being present at his interrogation does not mean that none were. Again, it would not have been unusual for Pilate's Greek utterances to have been translated into Aramaic and vice-versa. What evidence is there that Jesus was, in fact, familiar with the Septuagint? In his preaching, does he make reference to passages included in it which are absent from the Masoretic text? If not, Occam's razor would slice away Greek from his repertoire as well.
I think Aramaic and (Biblical) Hebrew are the only two languages which can be freely assumed. For anything else, you need to build a stronger case than what's been presented so far.